Thank you very much for this "bereshit", but why is the Hebrew verb "bara" singular with the plural noun "Elohim"? See Genesis 1:1. That was skipped. Is this an anomaly deliberately made by theologians? In my native Serbian language, such a grammatical phenomenon is irregular. If a student wrote such a grammatical error, he would get a bad grade as big as a house.
It's a well-known feature of Biblical Hebrew that's also present in other ancient semitic languages. It's an intensive plural, i.e. a way to add emphasis to a singular subject through the use of the plural form. It has nothing to do with theology because it's applied to a variety of topics, for example the "beast" in the book of Job is just one and yet the plural form is used.
I would like the exact verse from Job.
Job 40:15
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